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Is it your opinion, then, that the fact of missing first base and proceding to second should carry no penalty, for no other reason than the ball was declared dead? A penalty that would have prevailed if no fan interference had occured? Should a subsequent fan interference negate a prior action that would have otherwise been punishable?
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It isn't my opinion, it is the rules. That's like asking me if in my opinion, four balls should be a walk.
On appeal plays, the managers have until the pitcher goes into his set position for the next pitch, to gripe about what happened with the previous play. After that, too bad, too late.
So, had there been no fan interference, and the runner had reached secondbase without touching first, the opposing manager could have ordered an appeal, his pitcher touch the rubber, step off and then throw to first. The guy would be out (assuming the ump saw him miss first.) The deadball kills any possibility of an appeal because the runner was entitled to secondbase. If the opposing manager wishes to gripe, he may do so but it will not alter the situation, will it? At the end of his griping, it's still a runner on secondbase because he can go back, touch first, and then take second again..the ball is still dead.
You have to go by the rules, not by a private sense of justice.