[jtur88]

Is it your opinion, then, that the fact of missing first base and proceding to second should carry no penalty, for no other reason than the ball was declared dead? A penalty that would have prevailed if no fan interference had occured? Should a subsequent fan interference negate a prior action that would have otherwise been punishable?

I believe the umpire is called upon to award such bases as would have (in his opinion) been reached had there been no interference. In this case, second base would clearly not have been reached legally.

I, as the umpire, if the play had been appealed, would have awarded the batter-runner first base, since the interference and subsequent dead ball nullified the runner's opportunity to right a wrong, which still would have been open to him if the ball were still in play. Second base if no appeal is made, first base it an appeal is made. Since he is entitled to the next base that he could have legally advanced to---namely, in this case, first.